The One Ring is clearly a corrupting power in Middle Earth. Even the hobbits that are more resistant to corruption are eventually affected by its influence (Frodo, as an example, of course). The language Tolkien uses clearly states many times how "Men" are greatly affected by this corrupting influence because they covet power. Now, I know that "Men" is used in the generic sense to refer to Mankind in Middle Earth, but it is also clearly used to refer only to males. For example, it was foretold that the Witch-king would not fall "by the hand of man." Ultimately, Eowyn was able to slay him, claiming correctly that she is not a "man."
This is a little confusing, because one would expect that prophecy to refer to "men" as the race of mankind, but clearly it was not. This then opens the door to considering other similar wording along these lines. Therefore, it seems to me quite possible that a woman would not be subject to the corrupting influence of the One Ring (or any other Ring of Power, for that matter).
Is this interpretation valid? What if, for example, the One Ring were given as an engagement ring? Is there anything that expands upon this distinction in other canon (such as the Silmarillion)?