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Tommen ascends the thrones after his brother Joffrey's death, and at least in the TV series is referred to as being the first of his name. However, there were already at least two Lannister kings of the West, or the Westlands, or the Rock, named Tommen.

So, why isn't the books' King Tommen the third of his name?

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3 Answers 3

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According to So Spake Martin, Tommen will rule as the first of his name.

Will Tommen rule as Tommen I of House Baratheon, or Tommen III (?) of House Lannister?

Tommen the 1st.

The current numbering dates to Aegon's Conquest; the kings of the predecessor kingdoms don't count. It was the same in England after the Norman Conquest. Edward Longshanks was Edward I, and never mind all the Saxon Edwards who had come before 1066.

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Numbering starts with the beginning of the Targaryen dynasty. Previous dynasties and local rulers don't count.

It is similar to the monarchs of England being numbered from the Norman Conquest in 1066. For example, Edward Longshanks (reigned 1272-1307) is known as Edward I, even though there were pre-Conquest kings of England of that name, such as Edward the Confessor (1042-1066).

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Well, he is Tommen I, king of the 7 Kingdoms. The other Tommens were kings of the Westerlands, as you said.

It has nothing to do with which house he is from. It has to do with what kingdom he rules. The Westerlands used to be an independent kingdom, and it had several Lannister kings named Tommen. After Aegon's conquest the Westerlands became a lordship. Tommen is now the king of the whole realm, aka the 7 Kingdoms, aka Westeros. He is the first king of Westeros named Tommen. If there had been a Targarien king of Westeros named Tommen, then Tommen Baratheon would have been Tommen the Second.

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You would have to clarify: king Tommen I of Westeros, or of Casterly Rock. Now that Westerlands are no longer independent there is a king of the 7 Kingdoms and a Lord of the Westerlands. And those are two different people. –  Dima May 18 at 18:43
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There's ample historical precedent for this. King James VI of Scotland and King James I of Great Britain were one and the same person (before and after the union of Scotland and England). –  Peter Shor May 19 at 0:38
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Peter Shor: Not quite. James VI of Scotland became James I of England in 1603 (while retaining his old title in Scotland). There was no such thing as a King/Queen of Great Britain until the Union of 1707. –  Royal Canadian Bandit May 19 at 1:08
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He is the first Tommen Baratheon. Sure, there where other Tommens, but never one that shared his full name. –  Monty129 May 19 at 11:39
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There is the case of Emperor Charles V, who was at the same time King Charles I of Spain. This person has two different numbers because these were two different kingdoms (well, one kingdom and one empire). In the case of Westeros/7 kingdoms, it is a different kingdom from Westerland alone. –  Envite May 19 at 12:00

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