Timeline for Why did Lords of Vale swear allegiance to a Northman?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 24, 2017 at 13:02 | history | edited | Skooba | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Mar 20, 2017 at 6:18 | comment | added | Aegon | Sadly the only time Westerosi Lords considered Martial prowess to be a valid reason for crowning someone was 1st Blackfyre rebellion and even then half of the Lords and realm didn't think that was a valid reason. Vale is not a part of the North, it is rather Eastern Westeros. They did not need to unite with Northerners at all. In any case, they could have united with an alliance, swearing allegiance was not needed | |
| Mar 15, 2017 at 23:52 | comment | added | WitchsFISTS | Your answer is very brief, I would encourage you to try and flesh out your answer with more explanation and even examples from the source if possible. Try to explain more about why John Snow was seen as the most viable option; specifically try and answer each of the points on the bulleted list that Aegon has in his original question. | |
| Mar 15, 2017 at 23:14 | review | Late answers | |||
| Mar 15, 2017 at 23:52 | |||||
| Mar 15, 2017 at 22:56 | review | First posts | |||
| Mar 15, 2017 at 23:06 | |||||
| Mar 15, 2017 at 22:54 | history | answered | andy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |