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Apr 17, 2018 at 1:05 comment added Pryftan Tolkien considered Black Speech to be incredibly foul which is although not necessarily the same thing as 'curse words' it's still worth noting.
Oct 14, 2017 at 5:02 vote accept Charles
Oct 13, 2017 at 15:07 comment added Chris @RonJohn: I see where you are coming from but Charles is asking this question today so we would presumably use today's definition, especially since the example give supports the modern usage. If he were asking about occurrences of the phrase "curse words" in something that Tolkien wrote I would be with you that we should consider the meaning as it was when he wrote it.
Oct 13, 2017 at 15:04 comment added RonJohn @Charles you're right. Thanks.
Oct 13, 2017 at 15:03 comment added RonJohn @Chris "An offensive word or phrase used to express anger or annoyance" That's the modern definition, and Tolkien definitely wasn't writing a modern story. Thus, I think it's completely valid to lean on etymology.
Oct 13, 2017 at 15:01 comment added RonJohn @Charles "tell me what specifically" it was the impression I get.
Oct 13, 2017 at 14:57 comment added Chris @RonJohn: You may be confusing etymology with meaning. Googling "curse define" will tell you it is "An offensive word or phrase used to express anger or annoyance". OED will also say this. The currently highest voted answer also quotes a very similar definition.
Oct 13, 2017 at 14:56 comment added Charles @RonJohn Hmm, could you elaborate, and tell me what specifically it is that I said which makes you think that? Thanks.
Oct 13, 2017 at 14:12 comment added RonJohn Charles, you seem to be conflating curses ("damn you!" which purports to condemn you to Hell) with foul language (shit, f@ck, etc).
Oct 13, 2017 at 11:50 history tweeted twitter.com/StackSciFi/status/918806039457337344
Oct 13, 2017 at 10:19 comment added David Richerby Calling Pippin a "fool of a Took" is actually equivalent to today's... "fool". The "of a Took" part is just pointing out Pippin's family name. It's no different to saying something like "Some idiot of a customer wanted me to...": it just means "idiot who was a customer"
Oct 12, 2017 at 21:15 answer added MikJR timeline score: 6
Oct 12, 2017 at 19:46 answer added Blackwood timeline score: 3
S Oct 12, 2017 at 13:31 history mod moved comments to chat
S Oct 12, 2017 at 13:31 comment added Null Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
Oct 12, 2017 at 8:03 answer added Lindenare timeline score: 8
Oct 11, 2017 at 20:38 answer added LAK timeline score: 16
Oct 11, 2017 at 20:29 answer added reirab timeline score: 14
Oct 11, 2017 at 13:06 history edited Voronwé CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 11, 2017 at 6:47 history edited Charles
edited tags
Oct 11, 2017 at 6:46 answer added Edlothiad timeline score: 47
Oct 11, 2017 at 6:12 comment added Edlothiad 2) The linked question may say that the "curse words" are an addition by Peter Jackson, but what that should reflect is that while things can be seen as curse words from adaptations Tolkien did not include curse words. Tolkien had no intention to add curse words. And while he may have added things like "fool". he never included actual "curse words" as he was writing a high fantasy about heroism and the great feats of man.
Oct 11, 2017 at 5:44 answer added Voronwé timeline score: 17
Oct 11, 2017 at 5:30 history edited Charles
I am asking about the writing style of the author, which is beyond the lore of their work.
Oct 11, 2017 at 5:21 history edited Edlothiad CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 11, 2017 at 5:20 comment added Edlothiad Related: scifi.stackexchange.com/q/159094/68872
Oct 11, 2017 at 5:08 history asked Charles CC BY-SA 3.0