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Sep 6, 2018 at 20:28 comment added Conrad Bennish Jr @QuestionAuthority well anything’s possible isn’t it.
Sep 6, 2018 at 17:26 comment added QuestionAuthority @ConradBennishJr Unless in the books he tells Harry the truth and in Beedle the Bard he just wants to hackle Lucius Malfoy. Remember, he isn't talking to the reader, it's a letter to Lucius Malfoy.
Sep 5, 2018 at 21:34 comment added Obsidia @ConradBennishJr That’s what I think too. In addition, in some situations it matters more who’s considered pure-blood by the people who it matters to. When the Chamber of Secrets is opened, for example, those considered pure-blood wouldn’t be in danger (even if they do have a small amount of Muggle ancestry).
Sep 5, 2018 at 5:48 comment added Conrad Bennish Jr Unless in the books he’s simply using commonly used vernacular among others, and speaking more precisely to the reader of Beedle the Bard
Sep 5, 2018 at 5:10 comment added QuestionAuthority Such a definition would support Dumbledore's first statement that pure-bloods don't exist, mainly because without a limit is it impossible to prove that the ancestry is without Muggles. But it would make his statements from the books wrong.
Sep 4, 2018 at 22:54 history answered Conrad Bennish Jr CC BY-SA 4.0