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Mar 29, 2022 at 18:46 history edited DavidW CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 29, 2021 at 11:44 comment added ibid @klaus - My answer should explain what it meant in each of the books, and why this information was not included in the published Silmarillion.
Jun 29, 2021 at 11:42 history edited ibid CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 29, 2021 at 11:23 answer added ibid timeline score: 9
Jun 16, 2020 at 9:31 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 9, 2019 at 6:25 review Close votes
Jul 9, 2019 at 9:05
Jul 8, 2019 at 5:38 answer added Dale M timeline score: 10
Jul 7, 2019 at 21:39 history became hot network question
Jul 7, 2019 at 21:01 history edited Blackwood CC BY-SA 4.0
Correct typo in quote from *The Letters*.
Jul 7, 2019 at 21:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackSciFi/status/1147973686718357505
Jul 7, 2019 at 18:20 vote accept 3N4N
Jul 7, 2019 at 17:42 comment added Buzz The origin of the confusion is that Galadriel was a character created for The Lord of the Rings, who Tolkien only later began to integrate into the earlier stories. Given his unsystematic way of revising The Silmarillion, some parts of the story were never fully updated to account for elements added for The Lord of the Rings.
Jul 7, 2019 at 17:30 answer added Blackwood timeline score: 43
Jul 7, 2019 at 16:18 comment added 3N4N @Edlothiad, so wouldn't you agree that the part of Galadriel's refusal of pardon and second ban would be added in The Silmarillion, since it was after Tolkien's death and his lore were present? This is nagging because even though I know Tolkien wanted to create numerous stories set in the same world, I really would've loved to get important characters explained within the books they appear in. For example, I don't care that I don't know who Tom Bombadil is, but I really want to know what the speech of Galadriel was about after refusing the Ring, and I want it to be in the LotR.
Jul 7, 2019 at 16:06 comment added Edlothiad Why exactly is this nagging you? These books/entries/letters were written over decades? The Final Sil pieced together by Christopher.
Jul 7, 2019 at 15:37 comment added M. A. Golding It is perfectly possible that at the end of the 1st Age and beginning of the 2nd Age Galadriel was both forbidden to return to Aman and also wished to remain in Middle Earth. Thus both statements would be partially correct but omit some details. It is also possible that the Red Book of Westmarch and other surviving sources from those days contained contradictory statements about Galadriel's status. It is also possible that Tolkien sometimes forgot what he previously wrote and contradicted himself. He eventually planned to make Galadriel innocent of the rebellion of the Noldor.
Jul 7, 2019 at 14:01 history edited Rand al'Thor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 7, 2019 at 13:32 history edited 3N4N CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 7, 2019 at 13:30 history edited Voronwé
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Jul 7, 2019 at 13:25 history asked 3N4N CC BY-SA 4.0