related: Why are there only 2 universes that are visitable?

It seems that there are differences in the universes dating back to the 1930s

• Zeppelin flight was effectively finished in the USA by the Hindenburg disaster
• Gaudí's Hotel Attraction was built over there.

Given these differences and the duration that they have existed, I would expect the two to differ much more.

The lack of heavier-than-air flight over there would have significantly altered history—the course, duration and victor of WWII in the very least. This would have global knock-on effects, imagined over 60 years. While I would expect some similarities between the universes, they seem almost identical.

Is there an in-universe(s) explanation for why there is so little deviation between the two universes? Fringe as a show is normally quite good at the science in science fiction. While I appreciate that there are plot and production reasons that the two universes have to be closely mirrored, it would seem that there is a deliberate attempt to have them mostly the same but not identical. I have not as yet seen an in-universe explanation for it. It may not have been explained yet, or I could have missed it.

As a bonus, is there a known diversion event that initially separated the two universes, or have they always existed mirroring each other?

related: Why are there only 2 universes that are visitable?

It seems that there are differences in the universes dating back to the 1930s

• Zeppelin flight was effectively finished in the USA by the Hindenburg disaster
• Gaudí's Hotel Attraction was built over there.

Given these differences and the duration that they have existed, I would expect the two to differ much more.

The lack of heavier-than-air flight over there would have significantly altered history—the course, duration and victor of WWII in the very least. This would have global knock-on effects, imagined over 60 years. While I would expect some similarities between the universes, they seem almost identical.

Is there an in-universe(s) explanation for why there is so little deviation between the two universes? Fringe as a show is normally quite good at the science in science fiction. While I appreciate that there are plot and production reasons that the two universes have to be closely mirrored, it would seem that there is a deliberate attempt to have them mostly the same but not identical. I have not as yet seen an in-universe explanation for it. It may not have been explained yet, or I could have missed it.

As a bonus, is there a known diversion event that initially separated the two universes, or have they always existed mirroring each other?

related: Why are there only 2 universes that are visitable?

It seems that there are differences in the universes dating back to the 1930s

• Zeppelin flight was effectively finished in the USA by the Hindenburg disaster
• Gaudí's Hotel Attraction was built over there.

Given that these differences and the duration that they have existed I would expect the two to differ much more.

The lack of heavier than air flight over there, would have significantly altered history, the course, duration and victor of WWII in the very least. Which would have global knock on effects, imagined over 60 years. While I would expect some similarities between the universes, they seem almost identical.

Is there an in universe(s) explanation as to why there is so little deviation between the two universes? Fringe as a show, is normally quite good at the Science in Science fiction. While I appreciate that there are plot, and production reasons that the two universes have to be closely mirrored, it would seem that there is a deliberate attempt to have them mostly the same but not identical. I have not as yet seen an in universe explanation for it, it may not have been explained yet or I could have missed it.

As a bonus, is there a known diversion event that initially separated the two universes, or have they always existed mirroring each other.

related: Why are there only 2 universes that are visitable?

It seems that there are differences in the universes dating back to the 1930s

• Zeppelin flight was effectively finished in the USA by the Hindenburg disaster
• Gaudí's Hotel Attraction was built over there.

Given these differences and the duration that they have existed, I would expect the two to differ much more.

The lack of heavier-than-air flight over there would have significantly altered history—the course, duration and victor of WWII in the very least. This would have global knock-on effects, imagined over 60 years. While I would expect some similarities between the universes, they seem almost identical.

Is there an in-universe(s) explanation for why there is so little deviation between the two universes? Fringe as a show is normally quite good at the science in science fiction. While I appreciate that there are plot and production reasons that the two universes have to be closely mirrored, it would seem that there is a deliberate attempt to have them mostly the same but not identical. I have not as yet seen an in-universe explanation for it. It may not have been explained yet, or I could have missed it.

As a bonus, is there a known diversion event that initially separated the two universes, or have they always existed mirroring each other?

related: Why are there only 2 universes that are visitable?

It seems that there are differences in the universes dating back to the 1930s

• Zeppelin flight was effectively finished in the USA by the Hindenburg disaster
• Gaudí's Hotel Attraction was built over there.

Given that these differences and the duration that they have existed I would expect the two to differ much more.

The lack of heavier than air flight over there, would have significantly altered history, the course, duration and victor of WWII in the very least. Which would have global knock on effects, imagined over 60 years. While I would expect some similarities between the universes, they seem almost identical.

Is there an in universe(s) explanation as to why there is so little deviation between the two universes?

As a bonus, is there a known diversion event that initially separated the two universes, or have they always existed mirroring each other.

related: Why are there only 2 universes that are visitable?

It seems that there are differences in the universes dating back to the 1930s

• Zeppelin flight was effectively finished in the USA by the Hindenburg disaster
• Gaudí's Hotel Attraction was built over there.

Given that these differences and the duration that they have existed I would expect the two to differ much more.

The lack of heavier than air flight over there, would have significantly altered history, the course, duration and victor of WWII in the very least. Which would have global knock on effects, imagined over 60 years. While I would expect some similarities between the universes, they seem almost identical.

Is there an in universe(s) explanation as to why there is so little deviation between the two universes? Fringe as a show, is normally quite good at the Science in Science fiction. While I appreciate that there are plot, and production reasons that the two universes have to be closely mirrored, it would seem that there is a deliberate attempt to have them mostly the same but not identical. I have not as yet seen an in universe explanation for it, it may not have been explained yet or I could have missed it.

As a bonus, is there a known diversion event that initially separated the two universes, or have they always existed mirroring each other.