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Jun 17, 2021 at 14:51 vote accept MKHC
Jun 4, 2021 at 17:18 comment added Ryan_L @IanThompson I always thought that statement from Gandalf was saying that Sauron would have difficulty seeing past his biases, not that he was physically incapable of doing so. Maybe this should be its own question, idk.
Jun 4, 2021 at 17:13 comment added Ian Thompson @Ryan_L --- Sauron is defeated because he cannot understand his enemies' plan. As Gandalf puts it '... the only measure he knows is desire, desire for power; and so he judges all hearts'. Admittedly I can't find a direct quote relating to pity or mercy, but the idea that the ring could use such traits to its advantage seems highly unlikely to me.
Jun 4, 2021 at 16:59 comment added Ryan_L @IanThompson do we actually know Sauron doesn't understand pity? It seems possible to understand a perspective without sharing it. I understand how bats use sonar to get around even though I can't.
Jun 4, 2021 at 16:58 comment added Ian Thompson @GreenAsJade --- That may be so, and it's certainly the way I interpreted the question when I first read it. However, a lot of the discussion below focuses on the clause 'caused by the ring' rather than 'for its own purposes'.
Jun 4, 2021 at 16:56 comment added Ian Thompson @Ryan_L --- It seems very unlikely that the ring could have devised a plan that relied on a concept totally alien to Sauron.
Jun 4, 2021 at 5:02 comment added Ryan_L @IanThompson "Frodo's pity was certainly not caused by the ring for its own purposes" I wouldn't be so sure. If Frodo doesn't pity Gollum and instead kills him, there is a greatly-reduced chance of conflict within the fellowship. Keeping Gollum around may mean more opportunities for the ring to slip away or make Frodo get caught. Sauron obviously doesn't pity Gollum, but that doesn't mean he wouldn't benefit from Frodo pitying him.
Jun 3, 2021 at 23:25 comment added GreenAsJade @IanThompson I think the question here is not whether the experience of bearing the load of the ring caused Frodo's pity. The question is specifically asking if it was a magical effect of the ring to cause this pity "for its own purposes".
Jun 3, 2021 at 22:16 comment added Ian Thompson Perhaps the wording could be improved, given the disagreements below. The question isn't really either/or: Frodo's pity was certainly not caused by the ring for its own purposes, but his experience with the ring gave him significant insight into what Smeagol had been through. I might suggest an edit when I am less tired.
Jun 3, 2021 at 4:54 answer added dmedine timeline score: 4
Jun 2, 2021 at 17:52 answer added user287095 timeline score: 11
Jun 1, 2021 at 21:15 comment added Mazura Into this Ring, he poured his compassion, his benevolence and his will to pity all life.
Jun 1, 2021 at 21:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackSciFi/status/1399833169717760001
Jun 1, 2021 at 16:33 history became hot network question
Jun 1, 2021 at 10:22 answer added Mithical timeline score: 73
Jun 1, 2021 at 8:36 answer added Daniel Roseman timeline score: 84
Jun 1, 2021 at 8:33 history edited TheLethalCarrot
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Jun 1, 2021 at 8:30 history asked MKHC CC BY-SA 4.0