Timeline for Did Tolkien give his son explicit permission to publish all that unfinished material?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 10 at 14:51 | comment | added | Lexible | –1 "downright misleading" is a falsehood. Not just in the case of Tolkien, but in the case of any author. It is not the case that a published work of fiction is more or less real than unpublished work. As long as authorship and posthumous contribution is made clear, such works may range from "this how the story developed" (e.g., Unfinished Tales), to "here are the contours of the story (The Silmarillion)", to "here's an alternative take" to "here's a novel story" (with your without fleshing out). "Misleading" implies that there's a real fictional story, as opposed to a preferred one. | |
| Jul 2 at 11:03 | comment | added | PLL | @JohnBollinger: I don’t read the question as primarily about legal rights or permissions — much more about personal and moral permission, J.R.R. Tolkien’s intentions and preferences. | |
| Jul 2 at 4:43 | comment | added | RC_23 | I doubt JRRT had much concern, or any, for what happened with his papers after his death. He was a devout Catholic Christian, and as he expected to either be in Heaven or Hell, in neither case would anything left on Earth have any significance whatsoever (other than the welfare of his family). | |
| Jul 2 at 2:50 | comment | added | galacticninja | Welcome to Science Fiction & Fantasy SE! Please consider registering your account, which gives you access to more site features. As a registered user, you will be able to vote, and you won’t lose access to your post if you switch devices or browsers, or when your browser cookies are cleared. Registering is easy and allows you to participate fully in our community. For more info, see Why should I register my account? | |
| Jul 1 at 14:15 | comment | added | John Bollinger | The answers address the question posed well, but as a side note, as long as the elder Tolkein still owned the rights in question at the time of his death, someone was going to inherit them. The dead do not own anything. It didn't have to be Christopher who received them, but the question seems to suppose that there might be a scenario in which no one could lawfully have done what Christopher did, and that's not the case. | |
| Jul 1 at 6:05 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Jun 30 at 23:53 | answer | added | ibid | timeline score: 32 | |
| Jun 30 at 22:04 | answer | added | Valorum | timeline score: 72 | |
| S Jun 30 at 21:57 | review | First questions | |||
| Jun 30 at 21:59 | |||||
| S Jun 30 at 21:57 | history | asked | Iyan | CC BY-SA 4.0 |