Timeline for Why didn't Gollum grow old and die after he lost the One Ring to Bilbo?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 8, 2017 at 15:15 | history | edited | maguirenumber6 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 4 characters in body
|
| Nov 15, 2013 at 20:10 | comment | added | horatio | Christopher compiled, edited and emended the stories released posthumously, but his father wrote them. In LoTR, it was about a year from when Frodo set out from the Shire until the ring's destruction, but Bilbo's party was 17 years prior to this. | |
| Nov 14, 2013 at 13:29 | comment | added | Stan | I knew timeline was long but, in all honesty, didn't realize the length until I did the above research. Thanks for the honest feedback and correction. Upvoted this answer. BTW - welcome to the site. Hope we continue to see your contributions. | |
| Nov 14, 2013 at 13:10 | comment | added | Mark Robert Strange | I read the original four books written by Tolkien and walked away with an entirely different impression made regarding the timeline of events. I had no idea that the timescale created later in the stories written by Christopher Tolkien involved such a long period of time. I've corrected my error, with my apologies to anyone who was influenced by my supposition. Thank you, Stan. | |
| Nov 14, 2013 at 12:44 | history | edited | Mark Robert Strange | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 1 characters in body
|
| Nov 13, 2013 at 21:51 | comment | added | Stan | See Wikipedia articles on Timeline of Arda, Sauron, the One Ring. | |
| Nov 13, 2013 at 21:50 | comment | added | Stan | The ring was forged circa 1600 in the Second Age. The battle in which Isildur cut it from Sauron's hand was S.A. 3441. That's 1841 years and it's reasonable to assume Sauron had it in his possession from the time it was forged until 3441. Even if it was temporarily out of his possession (in which case, where was it) between the fall of Numenor (S.A. 3319) where his body was killed and his return (spirit) to Mordor in 3320, that only accounts for about a year. | |
| Nov 13, 2013 at 20:34 | comment | added | Mark Robert Strange | Purely deductive reasoning. From the time Frodo acquired The One Ring to when it was destroyed, approximately one year had passed. The devastation Sauron was able to inflict (even when he did not possess the Ring) was massive. It is hard to fathom any realistic timescale that would explain how Sauron could have been in possession of The One Ring longer than 500 years after giving the rings as gifts, yet was unable to defeat the remaining kingdoms of men in such a long period of time, so much so that there were still enough of them left to mount any type of campaign after centuries of war. | |
| Nov 4, 2013 at 15:01 | comment | added | Stan | What supporting evidence can you provide for Gollum having the ring longer than Sauron ? | |
| S Nov 4, 2013 at 14:51 | review | Late answers | |||
| Nov 4, 2013 at 14:54 | |||||
| S Nov 4, 2013 at 14:51 | review | First posts | |||
| Nov 4, 2013 at 15:01 | |||||
| Nov 4, 2013 at 14:33 | history | answered | Mark Robert Strange | CC BY-SA 3.0 |