Timeline for Is there direct evidence that the Riverfolk were actually Hobbits?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 16, 2020 at 9:31 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
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| Jul 22, 2017 at 21:56 | answer | added | user77299 | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 22, 2015 at 19:38 | history | edited | Null♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
removed minor character tag
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| Nov 30, 2013 at 22:44 | comment | added | balanced mama | I don't believe they are duplications at all. They both use the same quote, and they are both about Gollum's origins. However, my question is about confirmation of Smeagol's hobbitness, where-as the other question is about Tolkien's writing process and when in that process the decision was made to make Gollum a former hobbit. | |
| Nov 30, 2013 at 13:31 | comment | added | DVK-on-Ahch-To | @balancedmama - not a bad question (you only got one downvote, so don't get discoureaged!) but it does appear to be a duplicate. | |
| Nov 30, 2013 at 2:45 | vote | accept | balanced mama | ||
| Nov 30, 2013 at 2:27 | history | edited | jwodder | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Quoted the quote and added "gollum" tag
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| Nov 30, 2013 at 0:56 | comment | added | user8719 | The suggested duplicate asks if Gollum was always a Hobbit in an out-of-universe context (i.e. if Tolkien had intended for him to be a Hobbit at the time he wrote The Hobbit), this one is in-universe. | |
| Nov 30, 2013 at 0:51 | review | Close votes | |||
| Nov 30, 2013 at 15:30 | |||||
| Nov 30, 2013 at 0:17 | answer | added | user8719 | timeline score: 31 | |
| Nov 30, 2013 at 0:12 | history | asked | balanced mama | CC BY-SA 3.0 |