12

Loki could manage to bring in multiple Jotuns into Asgard with magic. Then after he stole the throne, why did he simply not continue with these methods, and choose to force himself upon the Bifrost and made an enemy of Heimdall?

This question is regarding the 2011 movie Thor.

Improve this question

3 Answers 3

Reset to default
12

As Pyrodante says, Loki has an inferiority complex - he's never been able to live up to his father's expectations (by his own measure), he lives overshadowed by Thor, and he's generally considered weak.

He doesn't just want power, Loki wants everyone to KNOW that he has power. Loki isn't mad, insane, or anything of the sort - Loki is a mastermind. His flaw is his crippling inferiority complex colored by his desire to do things in roundabout ways (which is also a way of overcompensating for his inferiority complex, he wants people to respect his genius).

Loki is arrogant, power-hungry, and defiant. Sneaking frost giants in through the hidden ways wouldn't appeal to his needs. Once he has made his power grab, everyone is supposed to know. Tormenting Heimdall is part of that - He wanted to show Heimdall that he, Loki, was in charge now.

Improve this answer
5
  • Wow, you and Pyrodante made it quite hard to choose the accepted answer :) But, you wrote it in a simpler, better formatted way. So you get the badge :)
    – Aditya M P
    Feb 1, 2012 at 18:34
  • 2
    I'll accept that, although to be fair, he used mine as a launching point. Shoulders of giants and all that :P
    – Ashterothi
    Feb 1, 2012 at 22:54
  • @Pyrodante: True, you did give me a launching point, but I do disagree about Loki being like the Joker. The Joker is less a trickster and more an anarchist, depending on the writer. Loki is many things, but mad is seldom one of them.
    – Jeff
    Feb 2, 2012 at 12:47
  • That's fair, I would not say "mad" as much as "nontraditional motivations"
    – Ashterothi
    Feb 2, 2012 at 16:33
  • While what you're saying is correct, I don't think this was the reason he attacked Heimdall. He only attacked Heimdall after he saw that Heimdall disobeyed him by sending Thor's friends to Earth. So I think your answer is ultimately wrong.
    – Wade
    Jun 26, 2021 at 9:58
9

One possible explanation is that Loki is not designed to be a completely evil, calculating, well adjusted villain. He was modeled off of the trickster god and is more chaotic then truly evil. Although much of his efforts went "according to plan" Loki is incapable of just "accepting his victory". Combine that with the fact that is primary motivation was an inferiority complex and you have a recipe for someone who will go to great lengths, including screwing up his own success, to try and make others see him as he tries to see himself.

Improve this answer
2
  • Does your answer mean that Loki just wanted to prove that he can kick Heimdall's a**?
    – Aditya M P
    Feb 1, 2012 at 18:05
  • 3
    I mean that Loki, like the Joker can not be seen as having typical motivations. In a lot of ways he is simply a dog chasing a car (or driving one off a cliff)
    – Ashterothi
    Feb 1, 2012 at 18:06
1

He banished Heimdall because Heimdall betrayed him.

I think you got it backwards. At first Loki tried to have Heimdall on his side. There is a scene in the film where Loki asks Heimdall whether Odin was afraid of him; Heimdall says he wasn't, because he knew he was loyal to him as his king. So Loki says: Well, now I'm your king, so you'll be loyal to me.

However, after that scene, Heimdall goes against Loki by sending Thor's four friends to midgard to help him come back (disobeying Loki's direct orders).

Seeing that Heimdall wasn't loyal to him, Loki relieved him of his duties and freezed him. Heimdall was already his enemy - he did not make an enemy out of him; he tried to have him on his side, but Heimdall did not want to be on his side.

It is only after this that he uses the bifrost in order to bring the Frost Giants to Asgard. At this point, it just didn't matter anymore whether he used it or not.

To summarize: he did not make an enemy out of Heimdall in order to use the bifrost; Heimdall was already his enemy, so he had to fight him, and then there was no reason not to use the bifrost.

Improve this answer
3
  • Aye. Heimdall was 99% certain that Loki had concealed the Ice Giants from coming to Asgard in the first film. So the first betrayal was his, not Heimdall's
    – Valorum
    Jun 26, 2021 at 9:51
  • 1
    @Valorum I edited my answer in order to avoid the word "betrayal". The point is that Heimdall was already Loki's enemy, Loki did not choose to antagonize him. This was a direct result of things Loki had already done before becoming king.
    – Wade
    Jun 26, 2021 at 9:54
  • He certainly did not antagonize Heimdall in order to use the bifrost.
    – Wade
    Jun 26, 2021 at 9:55

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.