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In book 1 Dumbledore gives Harry the invisibility cloak of his father as a Christmas present, explaining what it is and giving advice on an anonymous note. (It is also emphasized in the book that the note is indeed anonymous rather than implied as in the movie).

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Why did Dumbledore choose to stay anonymous in this case?

I can neither think of a reason why he would nor find any references on the matter. Thanks for your insight in advance!

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    To avoid the appearance of favouritism. I believe this is covered at some point later on in the book. – Rand al'Thor Mar 26 '16 at 1:27
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Pretty much the comment.

Dumbledore didn't want people around Harry to think he was Dumbledore's favorite. It was never covered in Sorcerer's Stone, but it does give this.

When he had found his voice again, Harry said, "And the invisibility cloak - do you know who sent it to me?"

"Ah - your father happened to leave it in my possession, and I thought you might like it." Dumbledore's eyes twinkled. "Useful things... your father used it mainly for sneaking off to the kitchens to steal food when he was here."

It basically tells us that Harry didn't even know who it was, and that Dumbledore did it because of his father.

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Maybe Dumbledore thought that it was still not the right time to directly interact with Harry, of course later on the story we see that Dumbledore admitted that the one who sent him the cloak, but if he were to interact directly it would seem that he might be favouring Harry, or Harry would go look out for Dumbledore. Maybe i am thinking about it too much but unless you ask the author with simple guess you can only speculate.

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