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In The Return of The King, why does Gandalf take Pippin with him when he goes to Minas Tirith?

Or, in a more exact way, why does Sauron think Pippin has the One Ring?

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    “Or in more exact way” — I think you mean “And here’s another, separate question”. – Paul D. Waite Apr 28 '16 at 14:11
  • @PaulD.Waite actually the second one is the answer for the first one ,so it's not a separate question – onurcanbektas Apr 28 '16 at 14:15
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    I can understand the premise of the second question (“Sauron thinks Pippin has the One Ring”) being the answer to the first question. But if that’s true, then the first question doesn’t need to be asked alongside the second question. – Paul D. Waite Apr 28 '16 at 15:43
  • Yes it is correct but when I first asked the question ,there was the first question .Then I edited but didn't the first one so that there won't be confusion. – onurcanbektas Apr 28 '16 at 16:06
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    I don’t think you’ve quite managed to avoid confusion. – Paul D. Waite Apr 28 '16 at 16:30
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You partially answer your first question with your second. Sauron, probably through Saruman, guesses a hobbit has his Ring. And as Pippin is the only hobbit he sees through the Palantir, he probably thinks he is the ring bearer. Gandalf also wanted to protect Pippin from himself by separating him from the Palantir. Going cold turkey.

  • but still assuming the first hobbit he saw is the ring bearer is kind a silly assumption. – onurcanbektas Apr 28 '16 at 14:21
  • By the way , when pippin looked into the palantir , did Sauron knew that Saruman had been dead ? – onurcanbektas Apr 28 '16 at 14:22
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    @Leth but he was using the Palantir at Orthanc, which is in Sarumans posession and he guesses that Saruman tries to get the Ring for himself and thus captured the ring bearer. Regarding 2nd comment: in the books he isn't dead – Thomas Apr 28 '16 at 14:23
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    @Leth Not just the first hobbit, but a hobbit at Isengard when it is reasonable to assume that Saruman still has possession of the Stone. This is explicitly addressed in the book: "The Enemy, it is clear, thought that the Stone was in Orthanc -- why should he not? And that therefore the hobbit was captive there, driven to look in the glass for his torment by Saruman." (III 200). Pippin also reports Sauron's exact "words": "Tell Saruman that this dainty is not for him. I will send for it at once." – chepner Apr 28 '16 at 14:32
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    @Leth : Well, given the limited amount of palantiri, it would make sense to assume you need to be rather powerfull to actually have access to one. If you know a hobbit has the One Ring, and all of a sudden you see a hobbit in one of the palantiri, the 'silly assumption' you call it, could just as well be a fairly reasonable 'connect-the-dots' deduction. – Tim Couwelier Apr 28 '16 at 15:57
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Pippin looked into the Orthanc-stone, a palantir. In that palantir ('a seeing stone', as Gandalf called it in the movie version), he saw Sauron (and Sauron saw him). Sauron must have assumed the hobbit he saw, would also be the one holding the One Ring.

If that (not quite unlikely!) assumption was made, Gandalf may have prefered to keep Pippin well within his sights to keep him safe.

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