We know that The One Ring had an inscription on it, revealed when heated by fire:

One Ring to rule them all, One Ring to find them,
One Ring to bring them all and in the darkness bind them

Was that inscription an intended feature? (meaning, Sauron meant for the Ring to display it)?

Or was it merely an artifact of the technology/magic used to produce it?

enter image description here

I would prefer referenced canon answers.

  • Great question, wish I'd thought of it... – WOPR Jul 30 '13 at 13:20
  • 1
    Would you think about making my answer the accepted one? It seems to have acquired more votes than the previous answer. – jacen.garriss Jul 31 '13 at 21:13

The Markings were made intentionally. From the council of Elrond, Gandalf tells of his trip to Saruman and Gondor. Gandalf describes what he learned from Saruman:

"The Nine, the Seven, and the Three," he said, "had each their proper gem. Not so the One. It was round and unadorned, as it were one of the lesser rings; but its maker set marks upon it that the skilled, maybe, could still see and read."

Isildur wrote this about the Ring.

It was hot when I first took it, hot as a glede, and my hand was scorched, so that I doubt if ever again I shall be free of the pain of it. Yet even as I write it is cooled, and it seemeth to shrink, though it loseth neither its beauty nor its shape. Already the writing upon it, which at first was as clear as red flame, fadeth and is now only barely to be read ...

The Ring misseth, maybe, the heat of Sauron's hand, which was black and yet burned like fire, and so Gil-galad was destroyed; and maybe were the gold made hot again, the writing would be refreshed.

This seems to prove that Sauron intentionally made the Ring with the inscription, because the heat of his hand made the inscription easy to see and obvious to all. The first quote says that the "maker set marks in it", so to me this proves that Sauron intentionally put them there.

  • 4
    "...but its maker set marks upon it ..." is close to conclusive I think – WOPR Jul 30 '13 at 13:19
  • 1
    It is the best canonical answer I can find. – jacen.garriss Jul 30 '13 at 13:28
  • 1
    This is a definitive answer, as good and conclusive as I can imagine regarding the OP. EDIT: Oh and +1 :) – FoxMan2099 Jul 30 '13 at 14:54
  • The question is though why would Sauron intentionally put the inscription on the Ring when it actually would serve him better to keep his plan of world domination secret. – Valandil Nov 22 '16 at 18:45

To nitpick, only the third last and second last lines were inscribed on the Ring:

One Ring to rule them all,

One Ring to find them

One Ring to bring them all

And in the darkness bind them

These words were definitely spoken by Sauron as part of the forging of the Ring, as Gandalf mentions at Rivendell:

Out of the Black Years came the words that the Smiths of Eregion heard, and knew that they had been betrayed.

However whether Sauron deliberately inscribed those words or they appeared as a side effect of the spell, since they obviously played a part in it given they were spoken as part of the forging, is unknown. Only Sauron would be able to answer that in-world.

Out of character, obviously Tolkien would have been able to answer it but he never seemed to address it through his writings.

  • What about notes and other gazillion stuff that Christofer published? I know it's not guaranteed to be addressed, but wouldn't be surprised if it is. – DVK-on-Ahch-To Mar 9 '12 at 0:10
  • 6
    This is actually the first time I've heard it raised that it could have been a side-effect of the forging, which is quite an interesting idea. Up until now I (and most others, judging by sites I read) assumed it was inscribed deliberately by Sauron. It may have been omitted simply because everyone assumed that was the case. – dlanod Mar 9 '12 at 0:23
  • 3
    It's doubtful Sauron would deliberately inscribe the well known passage on the ring as its not like he needed to warm the ring up to find out it was actually his if he lost it. And what benefit would it be for your enemies to know they have the one ring when they warm it up with a fire etc... my vote is for side effect in-universe, out-of-universe this was just a great visual way to show how uber the ring is and who it belonged to. – Jared Mar 9 '12 at 4:03
  • 2
    @Jared I agree, assuming that Sauron had the choice he wouldn't have inscribed it. Given the "linguistic/musical/medium of communication" nature of magic, it is conceivable that the words and the spell are essentially bound together... – Francesco Sep 1 '12 at 15:16
  • 2
    Magic / communication correlation seems probable, consider also the door into Moria which spelled out the riddle to solve in order to enter - another connection of written word and magic – flq Jul 30 '13 at 13:09

I can't give you a solid canon answer, but I think . . .

If the inscription itself has the capability of powers (magical, evil, healing, controlling, etc) then it's a feature of the ring.

If the inscription is merely decorative and serves to make a general statement about the ring, then it's merely an artifact aspect of the ring. It would be like the inscription inside a wedding band: Schmoe and Eunice Brown - April 12, 1990 - Married this day. This is merely informative and basically not useful.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.