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I've been rereading the HP books and something keeps bugging me. In Chamber of Secrets the Ministry assumes Harry used magic, because he was the only magical being around, so basically that was their explanation. They couldn't actually trace the spell to him and not Dobby.

So I was wondering what if Ron or Ginny or the twins used magic at home? Could they have been traced because they are underaged or would the Ministry just assume that Mr or Mrs Weasley used magic instead?

Sorry if anyone else asked the same thing, but honestly, I couldn't find an answer.

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  • These questions might be similar to what you are looking for: scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/17084/… scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/10459/… scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/7360/… – Tronman Jan 5 '20 at 20:56
  • It comes down to the individual situation. The authorities would investigate, and made the best determination they can. Remember, Harry already had a target on his back at this point, so it was easy to assume it was him, besides, Dobby (an Elf who gets ignored often) disapparated, so there was no reason to believe anything else. – Möoz Jan 5 '20 at 23:15
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    Your specific scenario is directly addressed in canon - the Ministry would not be able to distinguish between magic performed by the children and magic performed by the adults. – Harry Johnston Jan 6 '20 at 9:17
  • @Möoz What do you mean when you say "Harry already had a target on his back at this point"? – Roberto Jan 7 '20 at 10:13

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