Does Snape ever clearly use Legilimency in the books before OOTP? I know Harry felt that Snape could read his mind, but do we ever see Snape knowing something that he only could have gotten (or mostly likely had gotten) through Legilimency?

  • 1
    Occlumency is used to protect your mind. Legilimency is the art of reading another persons mind.
    – Turamarth
    Aug 23, 2020 at 15:20
  • 1
    Can you clarify whether you mean to ask about Legiliemency or Occlumency? You mention Occlumency, and that's what the answer addresses, but your description seems to be of Legilimency.
    – Alex
    Aug 23, 2020 at 15:49
  • I meant Legilimency. I'll fix it
    – TheAsh
    Aug 24, 2020 at 17:46
  • 1
    Given there is an answer for the Occlumancy version, best fit might be to set this to Occlumancy again, and create a new Legilimency question.
    – Jontia
    Aug 24, 2020 at 17:54
  • @Jontia Perhaps.
    – TheAsh
    Aug 24, 2020 at 19:12

2 Answers 2



While never expressly stated, Harry describes snape as "Boring into" his own on multiple occasions early on. In regards to the shenanigans surrounding Hermionie's theft of Polyjuice potion ingrediants in Harry Potter an the Chamber of Secrets and again in Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban when interrogating Harry about the Marauder's map. On both occasions Harry isn't "caught out" (I assume because it's against the rules for a Student to have their minds read by a teacher) but Snape seems to know Harry is lying. Specifically in Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire when Snape notices Boomslang skin et al being stolen from his stores again he accuses Harry of the theft without any evidence whatsoever. IMO the only reason he'd do that is if he "knew" those same ingredients were stolen before and Harry had a hand in it. Both these situations are described similarly to Snapes use of legilimency against Harry in Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix after Harry and Draco's bathroom duel.

Note: For those wondering if Legilimency is something Snape couldn't actually use as evidence, I offer two possibilities: Using legilimency is certainly an invasion of privacy, and quite an extreme one. OR It may fall under self-incrimination. Either way it seems very much out-of-bounds for a teacher to do to a student when the student is unwilling. Especially considering the more serious circumstances (like finding who opened the chamber of secrets) where Legilimency could have been used to identify perpetrators of life-threatening incidents. The fact that it wasn't leads me to believe that if Snape did use it on Harry in the situations indicated he wouldn't be able to use that knowledge by itself to get Harry into trouble.



In the Goblet of Fire, he has to return to the Death Eaters and carry on the double-agent facade, acting like he was secretly on Riddle's side. Given Voldemort's prowess in Legilimency, he would have had to conceal his thoughts from him.

Lupin also refers to him as "a superb Occlumens". This is praise he could only have earned on account of expertise, and consequently, extensive use.

  • I fixed my question. i'm sorry for the misunderstanding.
    – TheAsh
    Aug 24, 2020 at 17:47

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.