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I remember reading here about how the Muggle Prime Minister got in on the Wizarding secret, and it made me wonder: Was there a time where both Muggles and Wizards had co-existed? I can't recall it being discussed specifically in the books or on the website. It seems to only talk about the highest tensions during Medieval times.

The books seem to historically line up to real-life events, knowing that the Salem Witch Trials happened during Modern times and there are even some historical, real-life people in the Harry Potter world, I was thinking: Is It the same for some other periods in history?

For example, would wizards and witches and their mythological creatures had been on good terms with those in Ancient Greece and Rome? Obviously, Rome/Greece has plenty of mythological creatures. We know many of them to exist in the Wizarding world, such as hippogriffs (Buckbeat) and the Cerebus (Fluffy). The Greeks and Romans also have multiple accounts of abnormally powerful humans going on adventures against gods and magical creatures (The Odyssey). Also, in Ancient Greece, they have a goddess of witchcraft (Hectate) who was associated with a fair amount of good.

With that being said, I was wondering: is there any evidence Wizards and Muggles co-existed peacefully before the Salem Witch Trials if everything historically lined up? Evidence would be appreciated.

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    " the Salem Witch Trials happened during Medival times" -- modern times. The Americas weren't even discovered before modern times. The bulk of the witch trials were in modern times, too, and Salem was among the late ones. – Mary Oct 18 at 20:34
  • @Mary Apologies. I'll edit it now. Do you still get what I mean, though? Does it harm the question to say Medival? – Sister Student Oct 18 at 21:15
  • @Mary "and america wasn't even discovered before modern times" and yet there were people and whole civilizations already living there for 100s of years – user13267 Oct 25 at 13:21
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Yes, Muggles and wizards used to coexist before the International Statute of Secrecy was approved.

In fact, there are instances of wizards living among Muggles after said Statute was approved. For example, Harry's parents were living in Godric Hollow, which is a village with a Muggle population (although the wizards had to hide their magic, of course).

Prior to the Statute, wizards were living openly with Muggles, and magic wasn't a secret to the latter.
As Dumbledore notes in his copy of "The Tales of Beedle the Bard":

"As the witch-hunts grew ever fiercer, wizarding families began to live double lives, using charms of concealment to protect themselves and their families. By the seventeenth century, any witch or wizard who chose to fraternise with Muggles became suspect, even an outcast in his or her own community."

The Tales of Beedle the Bard, The Wizard and the Hopping Pot. Notes by Albus Percival Wulfric Brian Dumbledore.

That heavily implies that prior to the witch-hunts, wizards were living with Muggles, not hiding their magic.

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    Soooo .. after the statute every muggle everywhere across the entire world somehow "forgot" that magic existed, and that all historical records and artifacts were purged as well? – Peter M Oct 16 at 13:53
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    @PeterM No. Muggle society still has legends and myths about magic and magical creatures. They just believe they're just tales, not the truth. That sort of happens after a lot of generations without seeing magic, the truth dillutes. – Roberto Oct 16 at 15:22
  • But there is a difference between legends/myths and a complete archeological record. A legend/myths wouldn't be able to leave behind multiple first person written accounts of the use of magic. Imagine how much effort it would take in the 18th century to expunge the existence of the Magna Carta (written in 1215) from the collective knowledge of everyone in the world. That's the level of effort that would be needed to expunge the existence of magic from muggles. The alternative is that muggles were never curious enough to document the existence of any magic that they saw performed. – Peter M Oct 16 at 17:15
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    I fail to find any first person accounts of Horus written anywhere. However we have very good accounts of the actual lives of Socrates, Plato and Aristotle (just to name a few) from multiple sources. Anyone who could demonstrably perform magic would also have had a huge impact on the world at large. – Peter M Oct 16 at 23:31
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    The Statute only came into effect about 300 years before the start of the series, which seems a very short time for wizards to just fade into legend and leave no documentary evidence. There are newspapers still published today that predate it by decades. That does seem to be the canon explanation but it certainly feels implausible. – Withad Oct 18 at 10:24
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This example of co-existence occurs among British wizards and Muggles, but not among American magical and non-magical people during the time that Rappaport's Law was in effect:

Intermarriage.

We have plenty of examples in the HP series of Muggles married to wizards or witches, and many of the characters in the series are the children of such unions. Examples include Snape, Seamus, Umbridge, McGonagall, and so on. (Voldemort was also the product of a mixed marriage, but I prefer not to count it for the purposes of this question as it was not a consensual union.)

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  • The law you're talking about was after the Statute of Secrecy. Prior to the Statute, wizards and Nomags would coexist in America, just like everywhere else. – Roberto Oct 20 at 8:09

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