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We know that both Frodo and Bilbo turned 100% fully invisible when wearing The One Ring, their clothes included (as seen in Bilbo's disappearing trick at his farewell party, and Frodo's disappearance in the tavern).

Is there any indication in Tolkien of whether Gollum - who was related to hobbits - had the same effect (e.g. his clothes would become invisible when wearing his Precious)?

Please note that this only applies to times/situations when he wore clothes (possibly while he was still Smeagol), since it's quite possible that after multitude of years of feral living as Gollum he had no clothes.

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    -1 Gollum wasn't "related to" hobbits, he was a hobbit. As such he would be affected in the same way as all of the other hobbits we see wear the ring. – NominSim Dec 3 '12 at 23:31
  • @NominSim - I'm looking for confirmation of that fact (or refutation) by Tolkien, not by analogous guess. – DVK-on-Ahch-To Dec 3 '12 at 23:32
  • Confirmation that hobbits clothes are not visible when wearing the ring? Don't you have that? – NominSim Dec 3 '12 at 23:34
  • @NominSim - that Gollum's (or Smeagorl's) cloths were not visible. Bilbo's and Frodo's are obvious, as the question states – DVK-on-Ahch-To Dec 3 '12 at 23:35
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    "Hobbit-kind", indicates that he is of hobbit kind, meaning...a hobbit. Further evidence is given in Appendix B of The Return of the King: "About this time Deagol the Stoor finds the One Ring, and is murdered by Smeagol". The Stoors are one of the three branches of hobbits. Given the fact that Gollum was a hobbit, we have to assume that the ring affected him the same way as every other hobbit we see it affect. – NominSim Dec 3 '12 at 23:41
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Regardless of the debate on whether Smeagol was a hobbit or merely related to hobbits - I'm not sure why you would think this is species-limited.

Isildur wears the ring and becomes invisible when escaping the ambush by orcs on his journey north. It then slips off when he's in the water, and the orcs pepper him with arrows - and he was fully clothed.

The only person in the films seen to wear the ring and not become invisible is Sauron - the books aren't as explicit about that, but again they do not mention anyone having to be naked to be invisible while wearing the ring. As noted, Tom Bombadil also put on the ring and was not made invisible - while we do not find out who or what Tom is, it is fairly obvious that he is not a mortal like Isildur or the hobbits.

It could be that Sauron, as the maker of the ring, can also decide on his visibility as he might have more control on the ring's power.

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    In the books, Tom Bombadil didn't become invisible when wearing the ring. – WOPR Dec 4 '12 at 4:18
  • That wasn't necessarily due to his race. I mean, it could be, but we have no idea what he was. His own intrinsic magic and or willpower was simply stronger than the power of the Ring, and it was unable to affect him. That may or may not have anything to do with his race. – Gabe Willard Dec 4 '12 at 5:27
  • @WOPR completely forgot about Tom (and me having read the book again recently, too) – HorusKol Dec 4 '12 at 5:34
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    I often try to forget Tom and his songs... – AncientSwordRage Dec 4 '12 at 9:13
  • If we count the movies as canon, which I wouldn't in this particular instance, we have to remember that Gollum also puts on the Ring while he's falling into the lava in Mount Doom, and doesn't become invisible. That's obviously just for the viewers, though—it's hard to see the simultaneous signs of anguish and relief in the face of someone who's not there… – Janus Bahs Jacquet May 18 '15 at 9:15
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My mental image is based on the movies rather than the book, but I always imagine Gollum as being naked, so this is a non-issue. And a Ring that magically turns you invisible without making your clothes invisible as well is less useful/inconvenient than one that makes you and your clothes invisible.

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