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This question already has an answer here:

We see how, without the influence of the Ring, Bilbo's age finally catches up with by the time he reaches Rivendel. So why doesn't Gollum's real age ever catch up with him after he lost the One Ring?

marked as duplicate by TGnat, The Fallen, Django Reinhardt, phantom42, Major Stackings Jul 12 '13 at 15:56

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    Thanks, TGnat. I tried searching but didn't bring up any Questions, but that one answers it perfectly. – Django Reinhardt Jul 12 '13 at 14:57
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I suppose the duration of possessing the Ring would be a factor of how removed from normal life a Bearer may become. Not readily citable, but Gollum had the Ring considerably longer than any other person and the level of corruption/influence was greater.

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