In X-Men: DoFP a significant alteration of the timeline is occurred. For a moment let's ignore that alteration. We are in 1973 and Professor X keeps taking his medication for the next few years in order for him to walk -which has the side effect of losing his mental powers. How Xavier ends up in the '80s, when we see him in the beginning of X-Men 3 both walking and also having his mutant powers? Is that a continuity error or is it explained somehow? I know that Singer doesn't like the events of X-Men 3, therefore he acknowledges what happened in that movie in X-Men DoFP (for instance, Cyclops is absent from the future scenes because he was killed in X3).

Note to duplicate report: This question is trying to explain why Professor X is seen walking and having his mental powers at the beginning of X-Men 3 (early '80s), while in X-Men DoFP it is explicitly mentioned that the treatment for his spine has affected his powers. The linked question, though, is trying to explain why Xavier walks in early '80s after being shot from Magneto at the end of X-Men: First Class, ignoring the events of DoFP.

  • Fairly sure this is a continuity error, but I don’t have anything to back that up. – alexwlchan Jun 21 '14 at 19:46
  • I've already looked that post, the person who posted and all those who answered it try to explain it ignoring the events of DoFP. – Lefteris008 Jun 21 '14 at 19:49
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    I thought it was a point that the reason he doesn't have his powers is because he takes too much of Hank's serum, seeing as how Hank can still access his Beast abilities at will. – Monty129 Jun 21 '14 at 19:50
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    It's never fully explained, but I just assumed that in the years following, either he scaled back the dosage or Hank altered the formula. – phantom42 Jun 22 '14 at 0:07
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    Why didn't this question get re-opened. @PiXel1225 did clarify the difference between this and the other question. And it is a legitimately valid question. – Suman Roy Sep 12 '14 at 10:06