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While considering a recent question, I realized that I may not have fully understood something about the creation of the Rings of Power: were they (the 3, the 7, the 9, and even the lesser rings) at all connected before Sauron's One Ring "bound them" in darkness?

It seems like a very "Elven" thing to do, to allow Ringbearers to communicate and feel each other, but is that ever specifically stated? On the other hand, if they were already connected, what is the significance of the line "and in the darkness bind them"? Does it imply that the Rings could previously "disconnect" from each other, but now they were forced to accept Sauron's influence? Or were they never connected in the first place?

Once the One was created, its influence was clearly felt across all the others. But was that connection new, or did Sauron simply dominate a pre-existing connection between magic rings?

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Because the magic required to craft the rings was wholly Sauron's domain. Remember that he used to be the chief Maia of Aule, the Valar of craftsmanship. He taught the Elves of Eregion under the alias "Annatar" how to craft them. As he came up with the magic in the first place, he was later able to force his will over all lesser rings.

The exception are the three elven rings, which were kept secret from him and which he could never touch. In effect, he never obtained actual control over them. But they still work by his power and magic, and as soon as the one ring is destroyed, they will, same as the others, lose their power.

Considering your question of connectivity, as far as I remember, there is no real connection between the three elven rings and the one ring. They were only able to tell of Sauron's presence after he tried to bind them. As for the others, I don't think he had control over the 7 dwarves, so it might be the case that the connection which exists between him and his ringwraithes is due to them being loyal to him and the rings just being the conduit. But that last paragraph is pure speculation on my part.

  • I have to disagree on that last part, sorry. Elrond and Galadriel say that Sauron would be able to control and know the thoughts of all the ringbearers, even the Three, if they put them on while Sauron held the One. So it's a pre-existing connection that Sauron took advantage of. – Ber May 26 '16 at 6:27
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They were not connected before the one ring. That Saurons' hand had never touched or sullied the three was mentioned. It was a point worthy of discussion.

The hiding of the three does not infer that the holders of the three stopped using their rings sauron regaining the one ring would "lay bare all the workings of the three", hence my original question.

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    Dude, you must start using periods. You've got good ideas, but it takes me three read-throughs to understand them. – Nerrolken Oct 30 '14 at 18:03
  • The expearience of a ring user as Galadrael and Frodo was such that Sauron(who put much of his former power in the one ring) was able to still appear as an eye encircled with flame. in sam, frodo and galadraels mind; either because he posessed "from the seven" and all of the "nine" or he was imprinted automatically in any ring user by their having used a ring. – origionalmerlin Oct 30 '14 at 18:08
  • i cant apologise for not thinking in english and i do not expect you to understand my families clan language – origionalmerlin Oct 30 '14 at 18:19
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    You are the first person I have ever seen to use ESL as an excuse for omitting something as basic as periods. Even written languages which do not use the full-stop character have a concept of "the end of a sentence." – Brian S Oct 30 '14 at 21:04

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