In one of his letters Tolkien explicitly states that he regrets deeply the language for adolescents he used in The Hobbit. Unfortunately I don't have the book with me, so can't reference more precisely, but it definitely is there.
This is somewhat partial answer to the question: yes, it can be inferred and/or implied from various texts that. Tolkien wanted the most of his works to appear as if they were "translations" from original manuscripts, but there was also a very specific decision on the kids' language used in The Hobbit, which muddies the water on the issue the OP is asking about.
Like I said, I don't have the book on me, but the passage was to the effect of:
"in retrospect language for children that was used in *The Hobbit" was a bad idea".