From Hithlum to Angband to Maglors Gap to the Mouth of Sirion, Beleriand was sunk with the exception of Ossiriand (Lindon as it is known as in the 2nd and 3rd Ages). Was it because there was no damage to it and hence the Valar saw no need to sink it like all the rest of the lands west of it?

From Hithlum to Angband to Maglor's Gap to the Mouth of Sirion, Beleriand was sunk with the exception of Ossiriand (Lindon, as it is known as in the 2nd and 3rd Ages). Was it because there was no damage to it and hence the Valar saw no need to sink it like all the rest of the lands west of it?

From Hithlum to Angband to Maglors Gap to the Mouth of Sirion Beleriand was sunk with the exception of Ossiriand aka Lindon as it is known as in the 2nd and 3rd Ages. was it because there was not damage to it and hence the Valae saw no need to sink it like all the rest of the Lands west of it?

From Hithlum to Angband to Maglors Gap to the Mouth of Sirion, Beleriand was sunk with the exception of Ossiriand (Lindon as it is known as in the 2nd and 3rd Ages). Was it because there was no damage to it and hence the Valar saw no need to sink it like all the rest of the lands west of it?