From Hithlum to Angband to Maglors Gap to the Mouth of Sirion Beleriand was sunk with the exception of Ossiriand aka Lindon as it is known as in the 2nd and 3rd Ages. was it because there was not damage to it and hence the Valae saw no need to sink it like all the rest of the Lands west of it?
why was Ossiriand spared from the sinking of Beleriand?
Fingolfin
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