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Whosoever holds this hammer, if he be worthy, shall possess the power of Thor.

This statement suggests that when a worthy individual other than Thor wields Mjolnir, he would be granted the powers that Thor possesses. It seems reasonable to assume that Thor, when deemed worthy, shouldn't need Mjolnir to access the powers that innately belong to him.

We have witnessed a worthy Thor without Mjolnir existing while a worthy Vision wielding it was by his side. Using this as an example, what is the "power of Thor" that by definition both should simultaneously possess in that moment?

marked as duplicate by phantom42, calccrypto, JakeGould, Skooba, Rand al'Thor Jan 14 '17 at 15:00

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    Would you accept answers from the comics? – miltonaut Jan 14 '17 at 10:35
  • scifi.stackexchange.com/a/87086/35327 is also highly relevant. To summarize: "Picking up Mjolnir and wielding its powers are two different things!" Vision could move it because he's a machine (loophole!), but he probably couldn't wield its power to conjure lightning and so on. – Ixrec Jan 14 '17 at 13:58
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I would assume all the powers attributed to Mjolnir: flying, lighting, weather manipulation, etc. Without Mjolnir Thor cannot project these things and since it was given to him anyone worthy wielding it would also wield its powers. You wouldn't become Thor because there are some things that are in him genetically like superhuman strength and immunity but you would be able to utilize the powers of Mjolnir.

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